Debt Rattle October 10 2023

[aspnaz]

DBS said

Are you claiming that murder victims are as guilty as their killer because of their “going quietly along” with their crime by dying?

Indeed, you could definitely consider that to be valid in certain cases; let me give you a hypothetical or, more accurately, a common example. The daughter of a Jewish settler in Palestine knows her Jewish father killed a Palestinian man, kicked his family off the property and stole his land. Later, the son of the dead Palestinian man returns and kills the daughter because she continues to live in the stolen family home.

Who is guilty? The daughter is knowingly living on stolen property while the family of the original owner are locked up in Gaza, so she is morally guilty even though she is protected legally. The orignal Jewish killer is guilty, even though he too is protected legally. But what of the son of the dead Palestinian, is he guilty and if so, what of? In some parts of the USA you can kill people for trespass, so isn’t the Palestinian son just killing the Jewish daughter for trespass? Isn’t that okay?

I have flushed your argument “By that logic then we are ALL guilty …” down the toilet, where it belongs. But your original question deserves some discussion.

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